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Why are there two pronunciations for either Ask question asked 15 years ago modified 6 years, 4 months ago Why is it that in lists of people’s names, surnames beginning with mc are listed before surnames beginning with ma For example, if a book had a bibliography listing its references, we would see. Why the terminology changed from latin to english is a matter of speculation In french, avant j.c. (before. Why do people use the latter terminology For one thing, i find it confusing It doesn't help that bce is similar to bc But moreover, there is only one letter of difference between the two terms,. Why did the english adapt the name pineapple from spanish (which originally meant pinecone in english) while most european countries eventually adapted the name. But in my experience, north americans (canadians too) don't pronounce the middle a They pronounce it exactly like the girl's name carmel From my experience, all americans. 5 that's a very good question I've used all of the other ones on. I understand that the word spook is a racial slur that rose in usage during wwii I also know germans called black gunners spookwaffe What i don't understand is why Women who aren't interested in much more than sex are referred to as slappers in british english British informal, derogatory a promiscuous or vulgar woman As jimi oke points out, it doesn't matter what letter the word starts with, but what sound it starts with Since usual starts with a 'y' sound, it should take 'a' instead of 'an' Also, if you say today.